FREDRICK`S: June 2014

Wednesday, 4 June 2014

FREDRICK PAUL PARASITOLOGY MCQ THIRD BATCH

PARASITOGY MCQ THIRD BATCH. fredrickpaul88@fredrick.com 0786236417

Diphyllobothrium Latum (tapeworm;cestode) uses which of the following as intermediate hosts?
A) Snails and bluegills
B) Dragon fly larvae and salmon
C) Copepodes and pike
D) Copepods and annelid worms
E) None of the above

Spirometra Mansonoides (adult tapeworms;cestode) may be found in which of the defintive hosts
A) cats,
B) copepods
C) amphibians
D) reptiles
E) Goats

A (but not seen often. Definitive host implies it is in the adult form)

Moniezia & Anoplocephala (tapeworms; cestodes):
A) Use orabatid mites as intermediate hosts
B) Have eggs that contain a pyriform apparatus
C) Have eggs that are easily identifiable
D) Scolex has an armed rostellum
E) A, B & C

* Moniezia and Anaplocephala differ how?

-Moniezia: Ruminants (sheep;cattle); longer than Anaplocephala
-Anaplocephala: Horses

BQ: In recent years, several commercially-available equine dewormers have been modified to
include praziquantel. What was responsible for this change?
A) new data demonstrating the clinical association between trematodes and colic
B) new data demonstrating the clinical association between tapeworms and colic
C) new data describing trematodes as a parasite of horses
D) new data describing tapeworms as a parasite of horses
E) recognition of widespread anthelmintic resistance in equine nematodes to the
avermectin dewormers (ivermectin, moxidectin, etc...)

-B
-keep in mind that in Dr. Stromberg's notes, he states that there is no proven link between Anaplocephala (tapeworms) and colic, however, this is the answer presented on the board question review sheet.

Anoplocephala perfoliata (tapeworm) is characterized by the presence of a what below each of its four suckers?

-lappet/tab

BQ: Moneizia spp. are not known to cause any disease or production loss in infected cattle.
However, if treatment is desired, which of the following drugs would be expected to remove these
parasites from infected cattle?
A) ivermectin
B) eprinomectin
C) doramectin
D) albendazole
E) dichlorvos

D (or double dose of Fenbendazole)

The fringed tapeworm (cestode) is:
A) Moniezea
B) Anoplocephala
C) Spirometra
D) Thysanosoma
E) Echinicoccus sp.

Larval stages of the taeniid tapeworms (cestode) do not include:
A) Coracidium
B) Cysticercus
C) Cysticercoid
D) Coenurus
E) Hydatid Cyst

A (Coracidium was from the larval stages of the Diphyllobothrium Latum, a species of Pseudophyllidea)

Taenia Saginata (a tapeworm; cestode)
A) Larval stages also know as Cysticercus Cellulosae
B) Larvae stages found in beef muscle
C) Definitive host is the human
D) A & B
E) B & C

E
(I.H. Herbivore "Beef Measles"; D.H. Carnivore; Larvael stage known as "Cysticercus Bovis", Cellulose is for the wine version with Taenia Solium)

Taenia Saginata & T. Solium (tapeworms; cestodes) can be controlled by :
A) Sanitation
B) Cooking Pork
C) Rodent Control
D) A & B
E) A, B and C

A
(cooking pork with only work for T. Solium, NOT Saginata-which would be beef, not pork)

BQ: The term "measly beef" refers to the presence of:
A) eggs of Taenia saginata in muscle tissue
B) cysticerci of Taenia saginata in muscle tissue
C) sarcocysts (tissue cysts) of Sarcocystis in muscle tissue
D) tissue cysts of Toxoplasma gondii in muscle tissue
E) tissue cysts of Neospora caninum in muscle tissue

B (Larvae stage of Taenia; means "water bag.")

Cysticercus Cellulosae (tapeworms; cestodes):
A) Also known as pork measles
B) Infects humans
C) Infects dogs
D) A & B
E) A, B & C

D
(Pork Measles and Infects Humans. Remember, Alli asked about infection in dogs because much of the infected meat is sent for dog food)

Taenia Solium (tapeworm; cestodes) Eggs may infect:
A) Pigs
B) Cattle
C) Humans
D) A & B
E) A & C

Which genus name does NOT match the intermediate host?
A)Taenia Hyditanata; sheep
B) Taenia Ovis; Cattle
C) Taenia krabbei; cervids
D) Taenia pisiformis; rabbits

B (Ovis implies sheep)

BQ: An egg with a colored, thick, laterally striated shell containing a hexacanth larva was detected on flotation of feces from a 3-year old barn cat. How did the cat become infected with this
parasite?
A) ingestion of infected flea
B) ingestion of infected rodent
C) ingestion of infected rabbit
D) transmitted via bite of infected flea
E) transmitted via bite of infected rodent

- B
-Taenia spp. (Tapeworm)
- Eggs of Taenia usually pass from the host while still contained in the spent gravid segments and rarely show up in a fecal examination.
- Diagnosis is most often made by identifying these 'passed' segments.

Echinococcus granulosus (tapeworm) common definitive and intermidiate host parings:
A) dog and sheep
B) dog and horse
C) cat and sheep
D) a & b
E) a, b & c

D
-dog and sheep (Europe/U.S.-can include wolves as D.H. too in U.S.)
-dog and horse (England)
-Egg looks like Taenia egg, however, there are usually more found in feces; Be careful, very infective to humans, esp. in fresh feces

Echinococcus granulosus (tapeworm) has:
a) an armed rostellum
b) an unarmed rostellum
c) no rostellum

Hydatid cysts are generally:
A) multilocular in E. granulosus
B) multilocular in E. multilocularis
C) unilocular in E. granulosus
D) a & b
E) b & c

Echinococcus granulosus (tapeworm) typically uses which organism as the intermediate host?

Sheep

Pathologoy caused by Echinococccus granulosus (tapeworm)
A) adult worm does extensive damage to the intestinal mucosa
B) the larva stage does little damage to its host
C) the larval stage may cause pressure necrosis
D) none of the above

Control of Echinococcus granulosus (tapeworm) may be achieved in endemic areas by:
A) vigorous public education
B) periodic mass treatment of dogs
C) rigid control of livestock slaughter
D) a & b
E) a, b & c

A Dipylidium caninium (tapeworm) control program should include
A) removing adult worms
B) remove fecal material from the premise
C) control/remove the flea intermediate host
D) a & b
E) a & c

Mesocestioides spp. (tapeworm) has
A) 1 intermediate host
B) 2 intermediate hosts
C) 3 intermediate hosts
D) 4 intermediate hosts

B
-Oribatid Mite (free living in pastures. Cysticercoid in this host)
-Amphibians, reptiles, rodents, dogs and cats (tetrathyridium in these hosts)

A dog that chases & eats wild rabbits is most likely to become infected with which cestode:
A) Echnioccus granulosus
B) Taenia saginatat
C) Diphyllobothrium latum
D) Dipylidium caninum
E) Taenia pisiformis

E (common dog/rabbit tapeworm)

BQ: The most complete medical treatment for a cat infected with Dipylidium caninum is:
A) praziquantel, imidacloprid
B) praziquantel, pyrantel
C) pyrantel, fenbendazole
D) pyrantel, imidacloprid
E) fipronil, ivermectin

BQ: Neurocystocercosis develops in people following ingestion of eggs of Taenia solium found in:
A) undercooked meat of infected pigs
B) feces of infected pigs
C) feces of infected cows
D) feces of infected people
E) undercooked meat from infected cows

-D
-In this case, human is acting as the intermediate host

The external surface of the nematodes (roundworms) is
A) A simple cellular membrane
B) A cuticle, inert and resistant to the environment
C) A tegument similar to those seen in Trematodes

Nematodes (roundworms)
A. Are diecious
B. Have a rudimentary nervous system
C. Have a digestive system with only an oral opening (mouth)
D. A and B
E. B and C

The life cycle of the nematodes (roundworms) often relies on
A. The production of large numbers of eggs
B. Development that relies on molting from one stage to another
C. Ingestion by the host often from herbage
D. A, B, and C
E. None of the above

BQ: Which of the following nematodes is free-living by nature, but occasionally causes
opportunistic infections associated with dermatitis in animals?
A) Rhabditis
B) Physaloptera
C) Gongylonema
D) Toxascaris
E) Dioctophyme

The Ascardis are successful as parasites because:
A) Eggs survive in the environment for extended periods of time
B) Produce large number of eggs
C) Survive for large periods of time in the host
D) A & B
E) None of the above

Eggs of Ascaris Suum have:
A) A mamillated shell
B) Have a fully developed larvae when passed
C) Have a relatively thin shell
D) A & B
E) None of the above

A (thick shell)
(B is wrong because it is fully developed when infective, not when passed)

Hetarakis Gallinarum
A) Has a postanal sucker
B) May be a vector Histomonas spp.
C) Adult is found in the cecum
D) Egg has a thick shell
E) B, C and D

E
(A is incorrect because should be "Pre" not "Post"

*For Toxocara Canis (ascarid) what is the age for a tracheal migration type of infection?

Less than 12 weeks

*For Toxocara Canis (ascarid) what is the age for a somatic migration type of infection?

Greater than 12 weeks

*What are the 5 routes of transmission for Toxocara Canis (ascarid)? (he said this has been a fill in the blank on 80% of his exams)

-Direct: Tracheal Migration
-Transplacental: Prenatal
-Lactogenic: Transmammary
-Predation of paratenic hosts
-Ingestion of worms in vomit or feces

A 5-mth old spaniel puppy vomits a mass of thick stout white nematodes. On close inspection, you note the presence of three lips at the anterior end of each of the worms . What parasite is this most likely to be?
A) Toxocara Canis
b) Toxacara Cati
C) Toxascaris leonina
D) Ancylostoma caninum
E) Trichuris vulpis

*What are some control measures for Toxocara Canis (ascarid)

-Reduce environmental contamination
-Reduce exposure
-Reduce contact with paratenic hosts (i.e. don't allow dogs to chase and eat mice)

*Will you always know if the dog is positive when treating for Toxocara Canis (ascarid)?

No. Suggestion of treating puppies at 2, 4, 6 and 8 weeks of age. At 2 weeks, you are treating prophylactically.

Ascarids in general are found where in the body and which is the exception?

Small intestine
exception is Hetarakis Gallinarum (cecum of chickens)

BQ: Infection with which of the following parasites has been associated with head tilt and ataxia in
rabbits?
A) Encephalitozoon cuniculi
B) Baylisascaris procyonis
C) Obeliscoides cuniculi
D) Passalurus ambiguous
E) a and b

*Milk Spots are caused by:

- spots are caused by the migration of ascarid larvae through the liver; noted mainly under Ascaris Suum (Swine Roundworm)

BQ: Lesions due to infection with Ascaris suum include:
A) bilateral ocular opacities
B) fistulous tracts on the skin overlying the tail head
C) milk spot lesions in the liver due to scarring
D) laryngeal scarring causing abnormal vocalizations
E) grossly thickened renal capsule & necrosis of perirenal fat

*What are the 4 routes of transmission for Toxocara Cati (ascarid)?

-Direct: Tracheal Migration
-Lactogenic: Transmammary
-Predation of paratenic hosts
-Ingestion of worms in vomit or feces
(NO -Transplacental: Prenatal like in Canis)

*Why do we only treat Toxocara Cati at 6, 8 and 10 weeks of age and not also early like in the treatment for Toxocara Canis (ascarids)?

-No transplacental: prenatal exposure

*What are the 2 routes of transmission for Toxocara Leonina (ascarid)?

-Direct: Ingestion
-Predation of paratenic hosts
(NO -Transplacental, Lactogenic or Eating in Vomit)

*Migration of larvae (VLM) in humans as the abberant host can cause what issues?

-Eosinophilia
-Hyperglobulinemia
-Anorexia
-Hepatosplenomegaly
-Ocular Toxocariasis

The eggs of Toxocara canis and Toxascaris leonina can be differentiated by:
A) The thickness of the egg shell
B) the space between the ova and the shell
C) a smooth vs pitted shell
D) A & B
E) B & C

E
(can't differentiate by thickness since both are thick shells)
(B Can only be differentiated early on, but still a possibility)

Somatic Migration in Toxocara canis may result in:
A) Inhibited larvae in the tissue
B) Prenatal infection of a developing fetus
C) The possibility of lactogenic transmission of a newborn
D) A, B & C
E) None of the above

Visceral Larva Migrans (VLM) is caused by:
A) Ascaridia galli
B) Toxocara canis
C) Toxocara cati
D) Baylisascaris procyonis
E) B, C & D

E
(Cati-problem in the sandbox)

Foals become infected with Parascarsi equorum:
A) when they ingest larvated eggs from a contaminated environment
B) Transplacentally (in utero) from the somatic tissue stores in the mare
C) trasmammarily (via milk) from the larvae mobile from mare somatic tissue
D) by indavertant ingestion of instect intermediate host when grazing
E)by inadvertant ingestion of avian tissues in contaminanted feed

Puppies die at 2 days of age because of large numbers of larval nematodes migrating and molting in their lungs are most likely infected with which parasite?
A) Toxascaris leonina
B) Trichuris vulpis
C) Trichostrongylus axei
D) Toxocara canis
E) Physaloptera

D
(E-does not migrate)

*Which parasite causes a "rat tail" appearance to a horses tail due to extreme pruritus?

-Oxyuris Equi (Strongyle)
-female migrates to anus and lays eggs in the perianul region, causing irritation

*If an parent of a child infected with the human pinworm, Enterobius Vermicularis, asks you if they should get rid of their pet to control this issue, what is your advice?

-This is very host specific and cannot be transferred from your pet to your child

*What four pinworms are the rodent pinworms?

-Syphacia Obelata & Aspicularis tetraptera (mouse)
-Syphacia muris (rat)
-Passalurus ambiguus (rabbit)

Pinworms in horses
A) Cause a great deal of irritation in the perianal region
B) are of relative little problem in horses
C) May cause a rat-tailed appearance
D) Eggs are routinely found in the feces
E) A & C

BQ: A 5 yr old horse presents with tail rubbing and anal pruritis. You suspect infection is with the equine pinworm, Oxyuris equi. What diagnostic test is preferred
A) Direct smear
B) Passive fecal flotations with sodium nitrate
C) Centrifugal with sugar solution
D) Fecal sedimentation
E) Scotch tape test

E
(all others would work, but this is the "preferred" method)

BQ: The short prepatent period of this nematode insures that eggs of this parasite are likely to be
the first detected in a fecal float on a young foal:
A) Oxyuris equi
B) Strongylus vulgaris
C) Parascaris equorum
D) Strongyloides westeri
E) Drashia megastoma

Pelodera strongyloides is
A) A free living nematode that can survive in the skin
B) A parasitic nematode which has a direct life cycle
C) A parasite that uses an ant intermediate host
D) A and B
E)A and C

D
(Class answered D, but he answered A and said that it could be arguable)

BQ: Examination of a direct smear from fresh diarrheia feces of a kitten revealed several motile nematode larvae, each ~ 300 microns long, with a distinct rhabditiform esophagus. The most appropriate treatment for this parasite is:
A) metronidazole
B) fenbendazole
C) praziquantel
D) piperazine
E) epsiprantel

-B
-Rhabditiform is a character of strongyloides sp. -Rhabditidae
-Most are free living nematodes
-examples are Pelodera strongylides & Halicephalobus (Micronema) Deletrix

Strongyloides spp. have
A) a direct life cycle
B) an indirect life cycle
C) Genetically, eggs may be 1x, 2x or 3x
D) all of the above
E) None of the above

D
(can have both life cycles!)

Strongyloides ransomi
A) uses the lactogenic route to infect baby pigs
B) May be very pathogenic in baby pigs
C) Is found in horses where it is also very pathogenic
D) A & B
E) B & C

*What is an issue with diagnosing Strongyles in the feces via eggs? and which is the one out of these that we should be able to identify by the egg?

-Cannot differentiate between most species by the eggs.
-Nematodirus spp.: large eggs & unique shape help i.d. Females however shed very few eggs, so not uncommon to see only 1-2 eggs per gram/slide
-Syngamus Trachea (avian "y-worm")-has a plug on each end (2 plugs)

*How can you prevent and control Strongyles?

-Good management (rotate and clean pastures-pad vac?? maybe works; good nutrition)
-Strategic deworming (every 6-8 weeks; resistance may need a different protocol)

*Strongyles larvae survive best at higher or lower temperatures on pasture?

Lower temperatures
Higher temps kill off larvae

Due to the efficacy of our anthelmintic
A) We see relatively few large strongyles in our horses
B) We have almost no problems with equine strongyles
C) We see increase eggs in the feces
E) None of the above

A (B is wrong since small strongyles (aka cyathstomes, cylicostomes, trichonemes or small redworms) are very pathogenic due to the cysts from the arrest L4 stage)

Strongylus vulgaris:
A) Causes pathogenesis in the mesenteric vein
B) Migrates into the anterior mesenteric artery
C) May cause colic due to migration
D) A & B
E) B & C

E (colic due to migration)

The most pathogenic large strongyle is
A) Strongylus pathogenicus
B) Strongylus edentatus
C) Strongylus equinus
D) Strongylus Vulgarus
E) Triodontophorus sp.

BQ: Although now rarely seen in managed horses, the migrating larvae of this large strongyle can
cause severe inflammation in the wall of the cranial mesenteric artery, and this nematode was, at
one time, the most commonly diagnosed cause of equine colic:
A) Strongylus minor
B) Strongylus edentatus
C) Strongylus equinus
D) Strongylus cyathostomus
E) Strongylus vulgaris

The most important part of a parasite control program is:
A) Deworming at specific times
B) Running a fecal examine to determine the need for deworming
C) Never treat more than half of the heard at at time
D) To alternate class for anthelmintics
E) B & D

We are asked to learn parasite life cycles because:
A) It gives us an insight as to where the parasite is vulnerable to "control" measures
B) our instructor is sadistic
C) It suggests what pathology may occur during the life cycle
D) Suggests what disease symptoms may occur
E) A, C & D

Ostertagia ostertagi
A) Known as the Brown Stomach worm
B) Can be as large as 1 inch in length
C) Larva grows 10x its size in the gastric glands
D) A & B
E) A & C

Hypobiosis of Ostertagia spp.
A) Is also known as arrested development
B) Larvae stop developing in the gastric gland
C) On resumption of development they destroy the gastric gland while escaping
D) A & B
E) A, B & C

Haemonchus contortus is
A) typically found in young calves
B) Is a voracious blood sucker
C) Is the smallest of the stomach worms
D) A & B
E) B & C

B (not always found in the youngest animals, any age. Largest of the ruminant worms)

Trichostrongylus axei is:
A) Is found in the stomach of cattle, sheep and horses
B) Is the smallest if the stomach worms
C) Migrate extensively
D) A & B
E) A, B & C

BQ: This parasite is unusual among the trichostrongyles in that it not only infects ruminants, but also infects many other host species including horses and pigs. It is one of the few parasites of potential concern in a mixed-species grazing situation.
A) Cooperia punctata
B) Trichostrongylus axei
C) Haemonchus contortus
D) Nematodirus battus
E) Ostertagia ostertagi

Decisions on when to deworm for Haemonchus contortus may be made by/with:
A) Fecal egg counts
B) FAMACHA
C) Presence of bottle jaw
D) All of the above
E) None of the above

BQ: You examine a herd of goats with pale mucous membranes and submandibular edema. Necropsy examination of one goat reveals nematodes in the abomasum with a characteristic spirally-striped, "barber pole" appearance. What parasite is this most likely to be?
A) Teladorsagia circumcincta
B) Trichostrongylus colubriformis
C) Haemonchus contortus
D) Nematodirus battus
E) Cooperia punctata

*What is a survival tactic of most trichostrongyidae?

Can undergo hypobiosis (helps them to survive in adverse climate conditions)

*Oesophagostomum spp. can be identified how (given that most strongyles are hard to differentiate)?

- Distinct cyndrical buccal capsule on the anterior end
- leaf like crown present

* Nodules from Oesophagostomum spp. cause what type of pathogenesis:

-interfere with peristalisis, nutrient absorption, water retention
-can cause ulcerative colitis, adhesions and can even cause peritonitis if they rupture
- "pimply guts"
- nodules caused by a sensitivity reaction to larval parasite

* Where is the eggs of the Stephanurus Dentatus (strongyle) found and why?

-found in urine
-it is known as the "Swine Kidney Worm"
- most of the other strongyles were in the g.i. tract

Which of the following parasites is NOT found in the swine digestive tract
A) Ascaris suum
B) Hyostrongylus rubidus
C) Stephanurus dentatus
D) Gongylonema pulchrum
E) Ascarops strongylina

-C
-Swine Kidney Worm

Cooperia spp. (strongyle)
A) May be quite pathogenic
B) Are relatively non-pathogenic
C) Cause an inflammatory response in the small intestine
D) Is very prolific (fecund)
E) A, C & D

Nematodorius spp.
A) Produces typical strongyle type eggs
B) Most larvae remain in the egg until infective
C) Some require cold temperatures to become infective
D) A& B
E) B & C

Oesophagostomum spp. (strongyle)
A) Live in nodules in the small intestine as adults
B) May interfere with intestinal absorption
C) May be found in pigs and sheep but not cattle
D) Larvae live in nodules in the large bowel
E) B & D

Stephanurus dentatus (strongyle)
A) Live in pairs in cysts on the ureter
B) Migrate extensively in the liver
C) Can be controlled with gilts only breeding program
D) A & B
E) A, B & C

Syngamus trachea (strongyle, avian type)
A) remain permanently in copulation as adults
B) Produce eggs that have plugs opercula at both ends
C) Obstruct the airway (trachea) as adults
D) all of the above
E) None of the above

D
(A-known as Y worm because of this)

* Which #1 parasite, pathology wise, in cattle?

Osteragias

BQ: Ostertagia ostertagi is the most important nematode parasite of cattle. This nematode causes disease in cattle primarily by:
A) blood loss from wounds in the abomasum left by feeding adult worms
B) destruction of the abomasal glands due to larval growth within these glands
C) intestinal inflammation resulting from secretion of toxins from adult worms
D) destruction of the liver, spleen, and sometimes kidneys as larvae migrate through the body before returning to the abomasum to complete their development
E) destruction of the small intestinal mucosa, particularly in the duodenum, due to extensive larval migration in the mucosa

* What parasite causes a Moroccan-like leather appearance of the abomasal lining of bovines

Ostertagia (strongylids)

Bovine gastroenteritis due to parasites
A) The clinical syndrome resulting from changes caused by the presence of parasites
B) Ostertagia larvae in the gastric glands
C) Only occurs with hypobiotic larvae
D) A & B
E) A, B & C

With Ostertagia, Anorexia may be caused by:
A) Production of CCK
B) Increased production of gastrin
C) Production of inappetin
D) A & B
E) A, B & C

D
(C is not a real term)

Larvae in the gastric gland may result in
A) Increased pH
B) Increased levels of HCl
C) Increased amounts of pepsin
D) Decreased amounts of pepsinogen
E) All of the above

A (question referring to Ostertagia)
(D could be correct too because if you don't have enough pepsin, you get decreased pepsinogen)

* What route of infection do we worry about for Ancylostoma Caninum (Hookworm) in puppies?

-Trans-mammary
-Hypobiotic larvae in somatic tissues (muscle tissues) could become reactivated, migrate to the mammary glands of the mother and get transferred through milk/colostrum.

BQ: What diagnostic test is best able to detect eggs in the feces of a 1-week-old puppy infected with ascarids and hookworms?
A) sodium nitrate fecal flotation
B) zinc sulfate fecal flotation with centrifugation
C) direct smear
D) fecal sedimentation
E) none of these methods because eggs will not be present

E (due to puppies age)

BQ: A litter of 2-week-old puppies presents with acute lethargy. On physical examination the
puppies are moribund, cold, and have markedly pale mucous membranes. You suspect acute
anemia due to hookworm infection. The next step in managing these puppies is:
A) prophylactically deworm with pyrantel pamoate
B) perform a fecal flotation and only deworm if eggs are detected
C) perform CBC, serum chemsitry, U/A, and abdominal radiographs on each pup
D) hold for quiet observation for 48 hours to monitor progression of disease
E) bathe each puppy to insure ectoparasites are eliminated

BQ: A mixed breed dog that is housed outdoors on soil in a run presents with lesions on its
ventral and dorsal surfaces of all four feet, sternum, and ventral abdomen. The areas are
erythematous, thickened, and alopecic. The owner informs you that ever since the dog was
adopted two years ago from a neighbor, the dog has only had yearly routine vaccinations (rabies,
DA2PP). The organism responsible for these lesions is most likely:
A) Aelurostrongylus abstrusus
B) Ancylostoma tubaeforme
C) Protostrongylus rufescens
D) Ancylostoma caninum
E) Bunostomum phlebotomum

D (hookworm)

Adult dog hookworms:
A) Suck a plug of gut into their buccal capsule
B) shed relatively few eggs
C) anterior end is bent laterally (sideways)
D) Eggs are shed larvated
E) A & C

A)
(not bent laterally, bent dorsally)

Hookworm larvae:
A) Have a bent anterior end (sideways)
B) May cause infection after penetration of the skin
C) Migrate extensively (somatic and tracheal migration)
D) Do not cause infection when ingested
E) Cause no pathology

B)
(C-could be true, since it he did talk about study where they tracked them migrated to brain)
(A-again, not bent sideways, bent dorsally)

Which of the following parasites would NOT be found in the stomachs of a bovine:
A) Haemonchus placei
B) Ostertagia ostertagi
C) Moniezia benedenni
D) Trichostrongylus axei
E) All of the above are found in the stomachs of bovine

Larvae of Ancylostoma Braziliensis (Hookworm)
A) May cause "Cutaneous Larva Migrans" in humans
B) May cause a patent infection in humans
C) Infects cats primarily
D) A & B
E) A & C

*Dictocaulus viviparous (nematode) phase of greatest mortality?

-Days 25-55; Patent phase
-adults in bronchi and trachea

BQ: Infection of sheep and goats with Bunostomum would be expected to cause:
A) abortion storms
B) clinically inapparent respiratory disease
C) severe central nervous system disease
D) anemia
E) mucopurulent ocular and nasal discharge

D (nematode of small intestine of ruminants and camelids)

*What unique test do we use as a diagnostic tool for Dictyocaulus Viviparous (Nematode)?

-Baermann Technique

BQ: You examine a herd of beef cattle with an afebrile respiratory disease that has not responded to antibiotics. Several of the younger animals are coughing. You suspect infection with a respiratory parasite. What diagnostic test would be most likely to reveal evidence of infection with
the most likely parasitic etiologic agent?
A) direct smear for motile protozoa
B) blood antigen test
C) Baermann exam for larvae in feces
D) fecal float for ascarid eggs
E) fecal sedimentation for trematode eggs

Which of the following parasites may be found in the equine lung
A) Trichostrongylus axei
B) Parascaris equorum
C) Anoplocephala perfoliata
D) Onchocerca adults
E) Cyathostomum spp.

B
(C in digestive tract, usually centered around the ileocecal valve; D on skin; )

*Dictyocaulus Arnfieldi (nematode) differs from other Dictyocaulus spp. how?

-Eggs do not hatch in the intestines

*What is our control advantage for Metastrongylus spp.(swine lungworm)?

-Intermediate host is the earthworm and only way into the pig
-If we control the earthworms, we can control the issue

*What is our control advantage for Crenosoma Vulpis (Foxhound lungworm)?

-Intermediate host is the LAND SNAIL
-control land snails or keep foxhounds away from access

*Which spp is known as the "Red Lungworm"?

-Protostrongylus Rufescens
-Sheep, Goat and Deer
-Molluscan (LAND SNAIL) intermediate host
-2nd most pathogenic lungworm of sheep (first was dictyocaulus)

*What is a unique way that Muellerius Capillaris infects the intermediate snail host?

-Can infect through penetration of the foot of the land snail (ingestion also viable method)

*What would the diagnostic stage be for Parelaphostrongylus tenuis?

-Infective stage is the L3 in the snail, NOT in hatched larvae in feces (although, has to hatch to infect the snail)

Which of the following lungworms use an intermediate host:
A) Dictyocaulus Viviparous
B) Dictyocaulus Arnfieldi
C) Metastrongylus Apri
D) Dictyocaulus Filariae
E) None of the above

C
(infects the pig; able to live for years in earthworm!)

BQ: The preferred method for detecting the larvae of Aelurostrongylus abstrusus in cats is:
A) fecal sedimentation
B) fecal filtration
C) Baermann examination of feces
D) direct smear of feces
E) thoracic radiographs

C
-This is "The Cat Lungworm"

Parelaphostrongyles Tenuis
A) Definitive host is the moose
B) May cause death in llama and alpacas
C) Commonly found in deer in northern MN
D) Uses a paratenic host
E) B & C

E
(A-Can be found in the moose, but not definitive host. Migrates to the brain abnormally there and causes "Mad Moose Disease")

BQ: Several elk and moose in a mixed-species hoof stock exhibit at a wildlife park develop neurologic disease, including ataxia and torticollis. However, the white-tailed deer in the exhibit are all normal. You suspect a nematode may be responsible. If so, how did the animals become infected?
A) ingestion of snail or slug intermediate hosts infected with third-stage larvae (L3)
B) ingestion of first-stage larvae (L1) shed in feces of infected deer
C) ingestion of third-stage larvae (L3) free on pasture
D) skin penetration by first-stage larvae (L1) shed in feces of infected deer
E) skin penetration of third-stage larvae (L3) free on pasture

*What is important for prevention of Parelaphostrongylus Tenuis in Alpacas, Llamas, Sheep and Goats?

-Preventative treatment
-Doramectin, Ivermectin and Moxidectin are all used
-W/o preventative medicine, may migrate to brain and be unable to cure

Which of the followng may be identified by finding larvae in the feces
A) Crenosoma vulpis
B) Dictyocaulus viviparous
C) Dictyocaulus arnfeldi
D) Muellerius capillaris
E) A, B & D

E
(C is as an egg, fully larvated, but not hatched)

*What is a clear diagnostic character of Ascarops Strongylia Physocephalus Sexalatus (stomach worm of pigs)?

-Spiral thickening of the pharynx (of the worm)

Filaroides spp.
A) Routinely uses a snail intermediate host
B) Live in nodules in the liver
C) Larvae are passed in the feces
D) A & B
E) A & C

Spirurids:
A) Most are considered major pathogens
B) All use an i.h.
C) Have a larvated egg
D) A & B
E) B & C

Habronema spp. & Draschia sp.
A) Adults are found in skin lesions
B) Are transmitted by dung beetles
C) Larvae may cause summer sores (Bursati)
D) A & B
E) B & C

C
(larvae in skin; transmitted by flies)

BQ: What aspect of the life cycle of Habronema and Draschia spp. accounts for the seasonal
pattern seen in cutaneous habronemiasis, or summer sores, in affected horses?
A) the bacterial organisms which cause the secondary infections responsible for
the lesions only flourish in the humid summer months
B) the larval stages of these nematodes become hypobiotic in the winter and are
thus less irritating to horses
C) the ticks which transmit these parasites are only active in the summer months
D) the activity of the muscid flies which serve as vector and intermediate host of
these nematodes is greatly reduced in the winter months
E) horses are ridden less in the winter months and thus the abrasive sores are
less likely to develop

BQ: A client brought in nematodes after his 6-year-old spayed female indoor/outdoor cat vomited them onto the
kitchen floor this morning. How did the cat most likelybecome infected?
A) transplacental transmission from the queen as a kitten
B) transmammary transmission from the queen as a kitten
C) ingestion of an insect intermediate host or vertebrate paratenic host
D) ingestion of larvated egg from the enviroment
E) ingestion of the third-stage larvae from the vomit of another cat

C (consider age of cat in this question)

Thelazia spp.
A) Have a fly i.h.
B) Adults may be found on the surface of the eye
C) Adults should not be removed mechanically
D) A & B
E) B & C

BQ: Thelazia, an eyeworm of cattle and horses that is occasionally found in small animals, is transmitted via:
A) mosquitoes
B) sandflies
C) ticks
D) keds
E) muscid flies

Spirocerca lupi:
A) May be found occasionally in Minnesota
B) Use a dung beetle i.h.
C) Has an easily identified egg, found in the urine
D) A & B
E) B & C

B
(C-easy egg to i.d., but in feces)

Physalopteran swine stomach worms include:
A) Ascarops strongylina
B) Ascaris lumbricoides
C) Physocephalus sexalatus
D) Gongylonema pulchrum
E) A & C

*Why might you not see Ascarops Strongylia Physocephalus Sexalatus (stomach worm of pigs) commonly on fecal exams?

-Need a beetle as an i.h.
-Pigs in confinement often not exposed to beetles.

*Why is the sedimentation technique work best for Spirurids?

-Thick shell on eggs does not provide good eggs for floating, so sedimentation techniques are best

*Spirurids use what type of intermediate host?

Arthropods

Physaloptera spp
A) Do not use an i.h.
B) Live in the large bowel
C) Seen in MN
D) No effective trxmt
E) C & D

Poultry spirurids include:
A) Tetrameres spp.
B) Oxyspirura Mansoni
C) Cheilspirura Hamulosa
D) All of the above
E) None of the above

* Dirofilaria immitis (Heartworm) uses what type of intermediate host?

Mosquito
(ONLY I.H. and ONLY way to go from dog ↔ dog; Aedes Vexans sp. of mosquito in MN)

Dirofilaria Immitis:
A) Uses a mosquito i.h.
B) There are usually a few microfilariae that will develop directly in to the infective L3 in the circulation
C ) the pre patent period is about 3.5 months
D) A & B
E) B & C

A
(pre-patent about 6 months)

Filariids:
A) Most use an arthropod i.h.
B) Microfilariae are found in the circulation or the skin
C) Worms live in the body cavity, connective tissue, blood or lymph
D) All of the above
E) None of the above

Drugs approved for removal of the adult Dirofilaria immitis
A) Ivermectin
B) Melarsomine dihydrochloride
C) Milbamycine oxime
D) Doxycycline
E) Selamectin

B (For ADULT, aka Immiticide. trxmt with tetracyclines may enhance adulticide therapy due to bacteria harboring by most filariids)

BQ: The currently-available monthly heartworm preventatives protect dogs from acquiring infection with adult heartworms by:
A) killing any larvae that may have been acquired by the dog in the preceding 30-day period
B) providing complete protection against any newly-introduced larval worms for more than 30 days following treatment
C) rendering the adult worms sterile, thereby preventing production of additional worms in an infected dog
D) altering the pheromone profile of treated dogs thereby discouraging feeding by vector mosquitoes
E) serving as a microfilaricide, thereby eliminating young worms before they are able to develop to adults in a treated dog

BQ: Cats infected with Dirofilaria immitis:
A) routinely develop severe reactions to administration of monthly heartworm
preventatives due to rapid death of microfilaria
B) are usually microfilaremic, allowing diagnosis via Knott or filter test or examination of a
wet mount of whole blood
C) occasionally develop disease due to aberrant migration of the worms, including to the
central nervous system or ocular tissues
D) often harbor large numbers (>50) of adult worms
E) have not been shown to develop any significant clinical disease due to infection

Which of the following parasites is not found in the gastrointestinal tract of
the dog
A) Toxocara canis
B) Dipylidium caninum
C) Dirofilaria immitis
D) Physaloptera spp.
E) Uncinaria stenocephala

BQ: Which organ is most commonly affected in cats that develop disease due to infection with Dirofilaria immitis?
A) liver
B) lung
C) kidney
D) central nervous system
E) skeletal muscle

BQ: The main significance of Acanthocheilonema (=Dipetalonema; filariids) reconditum in veterinary
medicine is:
A) severe disease caused by death of microfilaria following treatment for Dirofilaria
immitis
B) pathology seen in infected fleas and future potential for biological flea control
C) severe pathology caused by migration of this subcutaneous worm
D) microfilaria are similar in appearance to those of Dirofilaria immitis and thus may confound diagnosis
E) severe disease caused by death of subcutaneous adult nematodes following
treatment for Dirofilaria immitis

Acanthocheilonema (Dipetalonema) reconditum is important because its microfilariae may:
A) confused with difilaria immitis adults
B) It needs to be removed immediately
C) Cause extensive pathology in the connect tissue
D) Has no significance
E) Treatment with DEC may cause death if Mf are really D. immitis

Dracunculus insignis is found
A) in the sub-q tissue of dogs in MN
B) In water fleas (Daphina), the D.H.
C) in frogs, that may serve as a paratenic host
D) None of the above
E) A & C

E (B is incorrect since Daphnia is I.H.)

Onchorcerca spp:
A) Adults may be found in the ligamentum nuchae in horses
B) Uses Culicoides as a vector/I.H.
C) Uses the horse fly as a vector/I.H.
D) Most mosquitoes may serve as an i.h.
E) A & B

BQ: Which of the following animals would be most likely to serve as a source of Trichinella spp.infection to humans in the U.S.?
A) rabbit
B) sheep
C) cattle
D) bear
E) deer

D
(other source can be horses)

BQ :Anthelmintic resistance has been widely documented to occur in small strongyles (= cyathostomes) of horses with which of the following dewormers?
A) pyrantel
B) fenbendazole
C) ivermectin
D) moxidectin
E) a and b

FREDRICK PARASITOLOGY MCQ SECOND BATCH.

FREDRICK PAUL fredrickpau88@fredrick.com
SECOND BATCH PARASITOLOGY MCQ. 0786236417
ANSWERS ON END OF THE DOCUMENT

15. Cerebral malaria

A) is associated with P.vivax infection
B) is caused by P. falciparum infected RBC plugging the cerebral microvasculature
C) is caused only by chloroquine resistant Plasmodium strains
D) could occur during a relapse of malaria 40 years after initial infection
with the parasite
E) is a psychiatric disease associated with delusions of parasitosis

16. Babesiosis

A) can cause severe anemia in splenectomized patients;
B) replicates within erythrocytes similar to malaria parasites
C) is endemic in the US
D) is transmitted by tick insect vectors
E) all of the above are true

17. Leishmania parasites

A) can infect any nucleated mammalian cell
B) replicate intracellularly within the endosomal compartment of the cell
C) are transmitted by the blackfly insect vector
D) cause massive dilatation of segments of the gastrointestinal tract
during chronic infection
E) are sexually transmitted parasites

23. Chagas disease

A) is also known as african trypanosomiasis
B) causes an encephalitis commonly called sleeping sickness
C) is transmitted by tsetse flies
D) causes cardiac and gastrointestinal pathology during chronic infection
E) is exclusively an extracellular protozoan pathogen

24. Protozoa and metazoa share all of the following characteristics EXCEPT:

A) infections with these parasites frequently cause eosinophilia;
B) can be transmitted orally, percutaneously or through insect vectors;
C) can involve complex life cycles requiring maturation in both humans
and other species;
D) disease is commonly caused by immune mediated mechanisms induced by
chronic infection;
E) cause chronic infections that remain asymptomatic in many infected patients.

Match the following helminthic parasites with the most appropriate statements
in questions 49-53:

A) Strongyloides stercoralis
B) Onchocerca volvulus
C) Schistosoma japonicum
D) Taenia solium
E) Ascaris lumbricoides

49. Infection with the eggs of this parasite is the most common cause of
new onset seizures in Mexican adults.
50. This parasite is known as the "giant roundworm" and can cause
intestinal obstruction.
51. Autoinfection with this parasite in immunocompromised individuals can lead
to fatal hyperinfection.
52. Infection with this parasite can lead to seizures due to egg deposition in the CNS.
53. This parasite is a common cause of blindness in Africa.

57. The mold recovered from the patient MOST LIKELY belongs to the genus

A) Mucor
B) Aspergillus
C) Cryptococcus
D) Rhizopus
E) Histoplasma

65. Each of the following statements regarding Coccidioides immitis is correct EXCEPT:

A) It is a dimorphic fungus that grows as a mold in the soil and as spherules
in the body
B) Infection usually results from the inhalation of asexual spores (arthroconidia);
hence, the primary site of infection in the lung
C) When cultured in the laboratory, the organism forms budding yeasts
D) The most important host defense against this organism is
cell-mediated immunity

Section 2

6.   All of the following are characteristic of Blastomycosis  EXCEPT:

        A)   pulmonary involvement can lead to pneumonia, weight loss, and bloody sputum
        B)   skin involvement seen as crusted or ulcerated lesions
        C)   habitat in decaying vegetation
        D)   large broad based yeast cells seen in tissue
        E)   when inhaled, spores develop into large spherules containing endospores.

28.  All of the following are dimorphic fungi EXCEPT:

        A)   Blastomyces dermatitidis
        B)   Cryptococcus neoformans
        C)   Coccidioides immitis
        D)   Histoplasma capsulatum

33.  Each of the following is characteristic of histoplasmosis EXCEPT:

        A)   transmission by inhalation of spores
        B)   granulomatous lesions in the lungs
        C)   endemic in the southwest sonoran belt
        D)   skin tests are positive for life
        E)   reticuloendothelial involvement predominates in disseminated disease

37.  A patient with respiratory problems yields a sputum specimen
     containing yeast cells.  A latex agglutination test for
     antigen is positive, as is an India ink test for capsules,
     and the germ tube test is negative.  Which organism is MOST likely?

        A)   Candida albicans
        B)   Coccidioides immitis
        C)   Cryptococcus neoformans
        D)   Aspergillus flavus
        E)   Blastomyces dermatitidis

50.  A patient with chronic leukemia presents with a rapidly
     advancing infection of the nasal sinuses.  Biopsy and stain
     of the specimen with calciflor white showed fragments of
     non-septated hyphae and a sac-like structure apparently
     containing spores.  The MOST likely organisms is:

        A)   Candida 
        B)   Mucor
        C)   Aspergillus
        D)   Coccidioides
        E)   Cryptococcus

51.  Candida albicans is usually a relatively harmless commensal
     parasite.  Which of the following contributes LEAST to the
     ability of the organism to cause infection?

        A)   Decreased immune defenses
        B)   Increased mannan-binding to fibronectin and collagen
        C)   Production of mycotoxins by yeast cells in tissue
        D)   Increased use of antibiotics
        E)   Production of proteinase by hyphae in tissue

52.  Which of the following anti-fungal agents works via an affinity to sterols 
       in the organism, which then causes a perturbation of the cell membrane?

        A)   Griseofulvin
        B)   5-fluorocytosine
        C)   Miconazole
        D)   Ketoconazole
        E)   Amphotericin B

53.  A patient from the central U.S. who had a previous bout with
     tuberculosis, now presents with pulmonary problems.  Nodular
     lung lesions are seen on chest X-ray, and a CBC indicates
     neutropenia.  Hyphal elements were observed directly in a
     sputum specimen.  Which is the MOST likely diagnosis?

        A)   histoplasmosis
        B)   coccidioidomycosis
        C)   cryptococcosis
        D)   aspergillosis
        E)   blastomycosis

Section 3

1. A diabetic patient presented with a necrotic lung infection. Biopsy specimens
revealed organisms with non-septate hyphae and subsequent culture grew
colonies with sporangiospores formed within a sac on a long stalk.
The MOST LIKELY infecting organism is

A) Cryptococcus
B) Sporothrix
C) Mucor
D) Aspergillus
E) Coccidioides

32. Which of the following is LEAST associated with Candida albicans infection?

A) Pseudohyphae observed in tissue biopsy
B) Germ tube formation
C) Proteinase production in vivo
D) Yeast forms grown in culture
E) Penetration of blood vessels in vivo

33. Factors contributing to the initiation of fungal infections include
each of the following EXCEPT:

A) Use of antibiotics
B) Anaerobic wound conditions
C) Neutropenia
D) Indwelling catheters
E) Defective cell-mediated immunity

Items 45-49 (Use each choice A-E only once)
A) Histoplasmosis
B) Blastomycosis
C) Coccidioidomycosis
D) Paracoccidioidomycosis
E) Cryptococcosis

For each patient presentation below, select the MOST LIKELY
diagnosis (A-E)
45. Chronic cough, worsening shortness of breath, 8 kg. weight
loss and night sweats in a farmer with emphysema, first
noted after building an addition to his barn 4 months ago.
46. Weight loss and malaise, cough, ulceration in the mouth, and
crusting lesion on the face of a Peace Corps volunteer who
assists in clearing land in Venezuela.
47. Headache and low-grade fever for 10 days, now brought in
with confusion and stiff neck. Known to be HIV-infected.
48. Fever, cough, painful red lumps on legs, and new onset right
knee arthritis in a pregnant woman recently transferred to
Phoenix.
49. Enlarging skin ulcerations on arms and buttock over the past
month, beginning 2 weeks after camping in Wisconsin; dog
also ill.

18. Infection by a dermatophyte is MOST often associated with

A) intravenous drug abuse
B) fecal-oral route of transmission
C) adherence of the organism to perspiration-moist skin
D) inhalation of the organism from contaminated bird feces

19. A non-dimorphic fungus found in concentrated bird droppings
and which readily causes meningitis in compromised individuals:

A) Coccidioides immitis
B) Paracoccidioides brasiliensis
C) Cryptococcus neoformans
D) Aspergillus fumigatus
E) Sporothrix schenckii

21. Three weeks after Traci Rappaport traveled to California to study desert
flowers during Spring break, she developed fever, chest pain, and
muscle soreness. Two days later, red, tender nodules appeared on her
shins, and she had pain and tenderness in the right ankle. An X-ray film of the
chest showed a left pleural effusion. The MOST LIKELY diagnosis is:

A) blastomycosis
B) coccidioidomycosis
C) histoplasmosis
D) Mycobacteria infection
E) Mycoplasma infection

23. A vaccine MOST LIKELY to be effective against fungal infection should:

A) produce antibodies to fungal exotoxins.
B) induce a strong thymic-independent IgM response to fungal antigens.
C) favor the stimulation of Th2 helper cells.
D) include vectors or adjuvants designed to encourage endogenous
pathways of antigen processing.
E) induce the production of gamma interferon.

31. Which of the following is an anti-mycotic agent which inhibits ergosterol
biosynthesis in fungi and which can be used for topical or systemic infection?

A) Amphotericin B
B) Griseofulvin
C) Nystatin
D) Ketoconazole
E) Pentamidine

59. Which is the LEAST accurate observation concerning Candidal infections?

A) pseudohyphae are seen in infected tissue.
B) germ tube formation occurs in serum at 37 C.
C) positive DTH skin test is diagnostic for disseminated disease.
D) budding yeast cells are seen in infected tissue specimens.
E) fungal cells attach to specific epithelial receptors.

60. Which of the following concerning the pathogenesis of fungal infections is LEAST correct?

A) Transmission of organisms by inhalation or penetration is common.
B) Iron-binding serum transferrin inhibits the growth of fungi in vivo.
C) Damage may be due to invasion of tissue and displacement of
normal cellular architecture.
D) Damage frequently is due to granulomatous inflammation.
E) Neutrophils as opposed to lymphocytes, play
little role in protection from fungal infection.

64. Characteristics of Histoplasma capsulatum include all EXCEPT:

A) It is a dimorphic fungus existing as a yeast in tissue.
B) It is found in soil heavily contaminated by bird droppings.
C) It is endemic in the Ohio and Mississippi River valleys.
D) Severe disseminated histoplasmosis occurs even in immunocompetent
hosts because of the survival of the organism within macrophages.
E) Lung pathology is primarily seen as a granulomatous response
to the organism.

79. Aspergillus fumigatus can be involved in a variety of clinical conditions.
Which of the following is LEAST likely to occur?

A) Colonization of tuberculous cavities in the lung.
B) Tissue invasion in immunocompromised patients.
C) Allergy following inhalation of airborne particles of the fungus.
D) Erythema nodosum or erythema multiforme.

Section 4

9. A middle aged transplant patient under immunosuppressive therapy is
nonetheless undergoing a rejection episode. He presents with fever
and with pain and necrotic skin near the left eye. Biopsy of the lesion
shows non-septate hyphae invading the blood vessels. Which is the
MOST LIKELY cause:

A) Aspergillus species
B) Mucor species
C) Candida species
D) Cryptococcus neoformans
E) Histoplasma capsulatum

10. Each of the following statements concerning Blastomyces dermatitidis
is correct EXCEPT:

A) the organism is a dimorphic fungus that forms yeasts with
broad-based buds in tissue
B) the organism cause granulomatous skin lesions
C) the organism is transmitted by inhalation
D) the organism grows as a mold in the soil in North America
E) infection by the organism is commonly diagnosed by rising antibody titer

12. A vaccine MOST LIKELY to be effective against Histoplasma capsulatum
infection should:

A) produce blocking IgG antibodies to fungal mycotoxins.
B) induce a strong T-independent response to fungal antigens.
C) increase the stimulation of Th2 helper cells.
D) induce the production Il-12 and Th1 helper cells.
E) decrease the expression of Class II MHC determinants
recognized by CD4+ cells.

37. A young woman pricked her finger while pruning rose bushes and subsequently
develops a localized pustule progressing to an ulcerative lesion. Several nodules
develop along the local lymphatic drainage of the site of injury.
The MOST LIKELY agent is

A) Candida albicans
B) Aspergillus fumigatus
C) Cryptococcus neoformans
D) Sporothrix schenkii
E) Blastomyces dermatitidis

74. Which of the following conditions is LEAST LIKELY to occur as a result of
Aspergillus fumigatus infection?

A) thrush
B) granulomatous infection of the lung
C) tissue invasion in immunocompromised hosts
D) colonization of tuberculous cavities in the lung
E) allergic reaction to inhaled fungal particles

61. Each of the following statements concerning Giardia lamblia is correct EXCEPT:

A) It has both a trophozoite and a cyst stage in its life cycle.
B) It can be diagnosed by the string test.
C) It is transmitted by the fecal-oral route from both human and animal sources.
D) It causes hemolytic anemia.
E) It causes diarrhea

97. A cestode (tapeworm) that is acquired by eating undercooked pork:

A) Strongyloides stercoralis
B) Paragonimus westermani
C) Taenia solium
D) Plasmodium falciparum
E) Entamoeba histolytica

98. The anatomic location of inflammation caused by Schistosoma mansoni is primarily:

A) the bone marrow
B) renal tubules
C) intestinal venules
D) lung alveoli

Section 5 


1.      All of the following would suggest the diagnosis of a malaria infection with 
         Plasmodium falciparum and not Plasmodium vivax EXCEPT:

           A)    the absence of schizont forms of the parasite in giemsa stained bloodsmears
           B)    presence of multiple ring-form trophozoites infecting a single erythrocyte
           C)    clinical manifestations of severe, rapidly fulminant anemia and 
                   cerebral malaria
           D)    the presence of banana-shaped gametocytes in giemsa stained bloodsmears
           E)    relapse of clinical malaria up to 40 years after the last travel to an 
                   endemic region

2.      Babesiosis:

           A)    is transmitted by mosquitoes
           B)    can be treated with chloroquine
           C)    is associated with parasite replication in erythrocytes
           D)    can cause severe anemia in non-splenectomized individuals
           E)    all of the above are correct

3.      All of the following are true of Leishmaniasis EXCEPT:

           A)    associated with cutaneous, mucocutaneous and visceral forms of disease
           B)    transmitted by sandfly vectors
           C)    organism is able to infect mammalian macrophages
           D)    recurrent parasitemia is due to high antigenic variation of the organism

4.      All of the following are common causes of opportunistic infections in 
         AIDS patients EXCEPT:

           A)    Toxoplasma gondii
           B)    Entamoeba histolytica
           C)    Pneumocystis carinii
           D)    Candida albicans

5.      Strongyloides stercoralis:

           A)    is transmitted percutaneously;
           B)    is coughed up and swallowed prior to development into the adult form
           C)    is associated with severe hyperinfection in immunosuppressed individuals
           D)    can be associated with eosinophilic pneumonia
           E)    all of the above are correct

7.      Which of the following statements concerning Schistosoma mansoni is 
         NOT CORRECT?

           A)    it is transmitted percutaneously
           B)    adults live within venous plexi that supply the bladder
           C)    chronic infection is associated with portal hypertension 
                   and esophageal varices
           D)    it is a Trematode (fluke)


8.      Which statement concerning Neurocysticercosis is NOT CORRECT?

           A)    occurs in individuals after the ingestion of infected pork
           B)    is caused by larval forms of Taenia solium that induce 
                   inflammation in the brain
           C)    is a common cause for seizures presenting in adulthood in 
                   individuals who grew up in rural Mexico
           D)    is caused by a tapeworm

9.      Ascaris lumbricoides:

           A)    is known as the giant roundworm
           B)    is acquired through ingestion of eggs in contaminated soil
           C)    can cause acute intestinal obstruction
           D)    all the above are correct

10.     Paragonimus westermani:

           A)    is known as the oriental liver fluke
           B)    can be diagnosed by detection of parasite eggs in sputum samples;
           C)    is associated with endstage liver cirrhosis
           D)    is associated with brain abscesses
           E)    is transmitted by the anapheline mosquito

Use the following for Questions 49 - 50 :

                         A) Entamoeba histolytica
                         B) Plasmodium falciparum
                         C) Taenia solium
                         D) Paragonimus westermani
                         E) Strongyloides stercoralis

49.     A nematode (roundworm) that is acquired when filariform larvae penetrate the skin.

50.     Laboratory diagnosis is based on finding eggs in the sputum

        For Question 56:  Three U.S. oil prospectors assisted in the surveying 
        a potentially productive oil field in the jungles of Brazil.  One month 
        after returning to the U.S., two of the men developed lesions on their faces, 
        arms and necks which progressively increased  in size and began to ulcerate.  
        The men also experienced mild fever, weight loss and reduced appetites.  
        A Giemsa stain of pus taken from the lesions showed white cells and 
        macrophages.   Some cells were degenerate with vacuolated cytoplasm 
        containing numerous, 1-2 þm structures with darkly stained nucleoids.

56.     The history of the individuals and description of the intracytoplasmic 
          structures observed in infected white cells are consistent 
          with a preliminary diagnosis of

           A)    malaria
           B)    schistosomiasis
           C)    leishmaniasis
           D)    giardiasis
           E)    sleeping sickness

Section 6

3. Babesiosis is similar to malaria in which of the following ways?
A) transmission by mosquitoes
B) susceptibility to chloroquine
C) replication of the parasite in erythrocytes
D) ability to cause severe anemia in non-splenectomized individuals

4. Chagas disease

5. Helminthic infections:

A) are caused by single-celled organisms
B) are predominantly intracellular infections
C) are sometimes associated with eosinophilia
D) always require an insect vector for transmission
E) are caused by organisms which replicate by binary fission

6. Which are characteristics of Echinococcus granulosus?

A) infections cause expanding space occupying lesions within the liver
B) it is a tapeworm
C) rupture of a cyst caused by this organism can cause life-threatening
anaphylaxis
D) All of the above are correct.

34. All of the following are associated with Plasmodium falciparum infections EXCEPT:

A) stained bloodsmears rarely contain identifiable schizont forms of the parasite.
B) all ages of erythrocytes can be infected.
C) severe, rapidly fulminant anemia and cerebral malaria are common clinical
manifestations.
D) double ring form trophozoites and banana-shaped gametocytes are diagnostic
of infection with this species of plasmodia.
E) relapses can occur up to 40 years after the initial infection.

35. The following statements concerning Schistosomiasis are correct EXCEPT:

A) Most infections are asymptomatic
B) infections with Schistosoma mansoni can cause liver damage which results
in portal hypertension and bleeding esophageal varices
C) infections with Schistosoma haematobium can result in bladder inflammation
predisposing to urinary tract infections and bladder carcinoma
D) ova found in feces with a prominent lateral spine are diagnostic of infection
with Schistosoma japonicum
E) all schistosomes require snails as intermediate hosts

Use each choice (A-E) only once for Questions 50-54

A) Strongyloides stercoralis
B) Onchocerca volvulus
C) Schistosoma japonicum
D) Taenia solium
E) Ascaris lumbricoides

For each statement below, select the MOST APPROPRIATE parasite (A-E)
Use each choice (A-E) only once.

50. ingesting the eggs of this parasite causes neurocysticercosis
51. "giant roundworm" which can cause intestinal obstruction
52. autoinfection in immunocompromised individuals can lead to fatal hyperinfection
53. infections with this parasite can lead to seizures due to egg deposition in CNS
54. common cause of blindness

80. Which of the following BEST characterizes Leishmaniasis:

A) associated with cutaneous, mucocutaneous and visceral forms of disease.
B) transmitted by sandfly vectors.
C) associated with a parasite able to infect macrophages.
D) All of the above.

82. Schistosoma mansoni primarily causes inflammation located in the

A) bone marrow
B) lung alveoli
C) intestinal venules
D) renal tubules
E) meninges

Answers

Section 1

15-B, 16-E, 17-B, 23-D, 24-A, 49-D, 50-E, 51-A, 52-C, 53-B, 57-B, 65-C

Section 2

6-E, 28-B, 33-C, 37-C, 50-B, 51-C, 52-E, 53-D

Section 3

1-C, 32-E, 33-B, 45-A, 46-D, 47-E, 48-C, 49-B, 
18-C, 19-C, 21-B, 23-E, 31-D, 59-C, 60-E, 64-D, 79-D

Section 4

9-B, 10-E, 12-D, 37-D, 74-A, 61-D, 97-C, 98-C

Section 5

1-E, 2-C, 3-D, 4-B, 5-E, 7-B, 8-A, 9-D, 10-B, 49-E, 50-D, 56-56-C

Section 6

3-C, 4-D, 5-C, 6-E, 34-E, 35-D, 50-D, 51-E, 52-A, 53-C, 54-B, 80-D, 82-C

Wednesday, 4 June 2014

FREDRICK PAUL PARASITOLOGY MCQ THIRD BATCH

PARASITOGY MCQ THIRD BATCH. fredrickpaul88@fredrick.com 0786236417

Diphyllobothrium Latum (tapeworm;cestode) uses which of the following as intermediate hosts? A) Snails and bluegills B) Dragon fly larvae and salmon C) Copepodes and pike D) Copepods and annelid worms E) None of the above

Spirometra Mansonoides (adult tapeworms;cestode) may be found in which of the defintive hosts A) cats, B) copepods C) amphibians D) reptiles E) Goats

Moniezia & Anoplocephala (tapeworms; cestodes): A) Use orabatid mites as intermediate hosts B) Have eggs that contain a pyriform apparatus C) Have eggs that are easily identifiable D) Scolex has an armed rostellum E) A, B & C

* Moniezia and Anaplocephala differ how?

Anoplocephala perfoliata (tapeworm) is characterized by the presence of a what below each of its four suckers?

BQ: Moneizia spp. are not known to cause any disease or production loss in infected cattle. However, if treatment is desired, which of the following drugs would be expected to remove these parasites from infected cattle? A) ivermectin B) eprinomectin C) doramectin D) albendazole E) dichlorvos

The fringed tapeworm (cestode) is: A) Moniezea B) Anoplocephala C) Spirometra D) Thysanosoma E) Echinicoccus sp.

Larval stages of the taeniid tapeworms (cestode) do not include: A) Coracidium B) Cysticercus C) Cysticercoid D) Coenurus E) Hydatid Cyst

Taenia Saginata (a tapeworm; cestode) A) Larval stages also know as Cysticercus Cellulosae B) Larvae stages found in beef muscle C) Definitive host is the human D) A & B E) B & C

Taenia Saginata & T. Solium (tapeworms; cestodes) can be controlled by : A) Sanitation B) Cooking Pork C) Rodent Control D) A & B E) A, B and C

Cysticercus Cellulosae (tapeworms; cestodes): A) Also known as pork measles B) Infects humans C) Infects dogs D) A & B E) A, B & C

Taenia Solium (tapeworm; cestodes) Eggs may infect: A) Pigs B) Cattle C) Humans D) A & B E) A & C

Which genus name does NOT match the intermediate host? A)Taenia Hyditanata; sheep B) Taenia Ovis; Cattle C) Taenia krabbei; cervids D) Taenia pisiformis; rabbits

Echinococcus granulosus (tapeworm) common definitive and intermidiate host parings: A) dog and sheep B) dog and horse C) cat and sheep D) a & b E) a, b & c

Echinococcus granulosus (tapeworm) has: a) an armed rostellum b) an unarmed rostellum c) no rostellum

Hydatid cysts are generally: A) multilocular in E. granulosus B) multilocular in E. multilocularis C) unilocular in E. granulosus D) a & b E) b & c